Questions on Mises IV: Updates and a Challenge to Historians
Regarding my earlier question -- How does Mises define price? -- I'm not sure I have gotten a fully satisfactory answer yet. Commenter Quasibill writes,
Price is merely the relative value you place on something versus all of your (other) assets, including your future labor.
But I am not sure that this is a satisfactory definition. As I wrote in reply,
First, there is no clear way to derive [this definition of price] from an ordinal ranking of my wants, which to Mises is the only proper way of talking about how individuals value goods. Second, this definition excludes market price, which might not (indeed probably won’t) reflect the purely internal values I place on goods.
It also neglects marginalism: Any proper definition of price must take into consideration the question of whether this is the nth unit of a given good or the n+1th unit. This is a relatively easy defect to remedy, however, since we could simply write,"Price is the relative value you place on [an additional unit of a good] versus all of your (other) assets, including your future labor."
We continue to debate it below, but I remain less than satisfied about price, as price simply isn't an ordinal ranking. It's a quantity of money associated in some sense with a good. It also seems that, in the popular usage at least,"price" can be a putative attribute of a good, not necessarily one that induces any market transactions. When a price is bid up at an auction, for example, is only the final price a selling price? Aren't they all prices? And yet... and yet...
On the other hand, nearly all of my doubts regarding money as a commodity were satisfied in book I chapter 5 of TM&C, which considers much more precisely what kind of good money is: Is money a production good, a consumption good, or something else? The case that money is a consumption good is exceedingly weak. The case that it is a production good is somewhat stronger, as it facilitates the movement of other goods, and the movement of goods is indeed a kind of production. But the case that money is a third kind of good -- an exchange good -- is strongest of all, since money, and through it other goods, may be exchanged without moving much of anything at all.
(At this point it may be useful to note that, if I were writing a book review, the second part of my continuing series would almost certainly never have been written at all, no matter how many words my editor permitted. That it was written, and that it generated discussion and thought among the participants in the conversation, is only a consequence of not having read chapter five before I posted. It's also a demonstration of the promise (peril?) of this new method of writing.)
But in any event, here is my next question to readers. In particular, I have the historians in mind when I ask it.
In book I chapter 3 part 4, Mises discusses the asserted governmental prerogative to debase the currency as follows:
Fiscal considerations have led to the promulgation of a theory that attributes to the minting authority the right to regulate the purchasing power of the coinage as it thinks fit. For just as long as the minting of coins has been a government function, governments have tried to fix the weight and content of the coins as they wished. Philip VI of France expressly claimed the right"to mint such money and give it such currency and at such rate as we desire and seems good to us" and all medieval rulers thought and did as he in this matter. Obliging jurists supported them by attempts to discover a philosophical basis for the divine right of kings to debase the coinage and to prove that the true value of the coins was that assigned to them by the ruler of the country.
Nevertheless, in defiance of all official regulations and prohibitions and fixing of prices and threats of punishment, commercial practice has always insisted that what has to be considered in valuing coins is not their face value but their value as metal. The value of a coin has always been determined, not by the image and superscription it bears nor by the proclamation of the mint and market authorities, but by its metal content. Not every kind of money has been accepted at sight, but only those kinds with a good reputation for weight and fineness.
This embroils us in the question of fiat money, about which I will have much more to ask in the coming days. Laying it aside for the moment, however, I wanted to make a few notes here about early modern understandings of money and challenge historians in a general way about them. I am not asking a specific question with a specific answer, as I did above with Mises' definition of price, but rather I am issuing a challenge: Hey, historians, what do you think about this stuff?
Mises is certainly right when he notes that kings had long claimed the issuing of money as a royal prerogative. Not only that, but they had some very particular ideas regarding the circulation of money, notions that may strike us as simultaneously confused and yet all too familiar.
Counterfeiting, coin-clipping, and other acts that interfered with the sovereign's ability to mint money and make it circulate were all usually likened to the crime of lèse majesté. We may protest, as antimonarchists, that lèse majesté is an illusory crime. We may also protest, as Austrian economists, that the sovereign no more makes the currency circulate than he makes the earth revolve around the sun. But this is perfectly indifferent to the study of belief. As the adage goes,"Nonsense is nonsense, but the history of nonsense is scholarship." It strikes me that, much like the history of diseases and public health, the social history of economic thought -- really, for much of human experience the history of economic ignorance and superstition -- has yet to be told. How did all of the bad ideas people had about money (cf. Aristotle!) hold back the growth of material civilization and technology?
I know that in Mises' time, it was far more acceptable to talk, in a Whiggish sense, about the history of material progress than it is today, and that historians are often seen as somehow failing in their duties if they affirm that progress has indeed been made. (Eight years of graduate school has failed to make this perfectly plain to me, I'm afriad.) But... Outside of the narrow intellectual specialty of the history of economic thought, it strikes me that there are many new questions to be asked in this area: questions about culture and practices, about knowledge/power, perhaps, and about the background assumptions that color political and social actions. Nearly all decisions in past political and social history were premised, it now seems clear, upon what can only be called economic superstitions -- much as nearly all medical care during those same years was premised on theories that had only the remotest connection to health and disease as we now understand them.
The scholarship on the French Revolution is instructive. Although one can hardly deny the role played by economic ignorance as a proximate cause of the Revolution -- pre-Revolutionary credit structures were primitive and were ultimately a bad bargain for the French state -- the odd economic ideas of the time seem ready for exploration through such incidents as the Law of the Maximum, the various embargoes and trade restrictions, the fear of"speculators" and hoarders, and the assignats. The very idea that clipping a coin was not merely fraud, but an attack on the majesty of the king, indicates that a popular understanding of economics, grossly wrong but probably quite important, has been mostly lost to us in the meantime, and that we have only imperfect hints at it in our present understanding. A systematic look at the folk economics of an era could tell us a great deal about its history. Folk economics, as with folk medicine and popular religion, must surely change over time, and what changes might this work in the realm of event-history?
Almost makes me wish I were back in the academy.